Middle Ages/Talk

When were the dark ages?

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The term 'dark ages' is not used by professional historians any more. The more we learn about the Late Antiquity and the Early Middle Ages (note the preferred Periodization) the more clear it is that the 'Dark Ages' was a misnomer. There was never a time in Europe when people didn't read and write, buy and sell, etc., etc. There was a time when there was no particularly efficient central government in most parts of Europe, but if that's your definition of 'darkness,' then I can't help you. The term 'dark' was originally used by Italians in the 15th century to refer to the time between themselves (obviously enlightened, a time of Rebirth [Rinascimento = Renaissance]) and the Greco-Romans. Very self-satisfied of them to think of themselves as on one of two well-lit peaks with a dark valley between them, no? --MichaelTinkler

re: Perioditization and other terminology

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Michal is right about the usage of the term 'dark ages' -- a term I think was first used by Petrarch? Another term that I have seen used (or rather, misused) in several places is 'feudalism.' May I suggest that anyone using this term make sure they have first read the relevant articles by Peggy Brown and Susan Reynolds, and then use the term in a VERY qualified way?

J Hofmann Kemp