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I think "urinate" is as much a euphemism as "derriere," and I don't agree that the words have 'the same meaning.' They have shades of meaning, as words are wont to do; they carry different connotations, and if they didn't, it wouldn't matter whether one said "ass" in court and "derriere" at home. Euphemisms are used because they are devoid of unwanted connotations. "Urinate" obviously is a longer term, but I think that that's not the description you're looking for: would "medical terms" be a better heading? --KoyaanisQatsi "Tinkle" is a euphemism, "urinate" is not. I don't think so. I think "tinkle" is a euphemism for "urinate," which is a euphemism for "piss," and that "make out" is a euphemism for "have sex," which is a euphemism for "fuck." I think since euphemisms are tied up in notions of politeness and propriety, and since propriety is not absolute but relative, certain euphemims can have euphemisms of their own. I guess a similar phenomenon would be that the code of conduct expected when in the queen's court is more rigorous than the code of conduct expected at a staff meeting, which is of course more rigorous than the code of conduct expected in a phone call to one's husband or wife. --KQ Just checking: have any of you actually done any study of the (well-studied) phenomenon of euphemisms? Or are ya just guessing? :-) Shouldn't the examples reflect what rhetoricians/linguists know about the subject? My $0.02 as usual. --LMS I'm just guessing. If no one else has said what I just said, then call me a rhetorician. :-) Surely you agree that what is taboo is not absolute. --KQ But that taboos are not absolute doesn't prove my point. Apparently there is an opposite of a euphemism, which is most often called a "dysphemism" but sometimes called a "diseuphemism or deeuphemism," and so I think that the anonymous poster is correct. See for instance http://www.linguistlist.org/~ask-ling/archive-most-recent/msg04202.html and http://www.linguistlist.org/~ask-ling/archive-most-recent/msg04212.html --the most discussion I've found on it; most sites merely define it and move on. Merriam-webster has it that the word dates back to 1884. But the existence of dysphemisms leaves it to someone to determine which words are the most accurate with the least connotation, to zero the balance, so to speak, and that's something I'll not attempt. :-D --KQ |
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Apparently there is an opposite of a euphemism, which is most often called a "dysphemism" but sometimes called a "diseuphemism or deeuphemism," and so I think that the anonymous poster is correct. See for instance http://www.linguistlist.org/~ask-ling/archive-most-recent/msg04202.html and http://www.linguistlist.org/~ask-ling/archive-most-recent/msg04212.html --the most discussion I've found on it; most sites merely define it and move on. Merriam-webster has it that the word dates back to 1884. |
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But the existence of dysphemisms leaves it to someone to determine which words are the most accurate with the least connotation, to zero the balance, so to speak, and that's something I'll not attempt. :-D |
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