[Home]Napoleonic Code/Talk

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Napoleonic COde hadn't destroyed Legal Unity in Europe, because no such thing existed. Every country, every region in country had different laws. Unification of those different laws wsas in fact first step to creation of modern state, and that unificaiton for example in Poland took probably more than 300 or maybe 400 years [[szopen]
Its more complicated than that. In continental Europe, the law was a mixture of local custom and Roman law. The local customs varied from place to place, but Roman law was largely constant from place to place (although the extent to which it was used depended on local custom.) And in universities, Roman law (and also canon law) were the only laws studied -- not local customs. But after the advent of codes such as the Napoleonic code, the (albeit limited) unity provided by Roman law was lost. -- SJK
I accept that explanation, although i thought that Roman Law usually was a skeleton of the law, and sometimes was just kind a. erm, academic, abstract thing - ,,local rules'', at least in Poland, regulated every-day aspects of life, as punishments for crimes, regulations for inheritation goods, trade rules etc etc. szopen

does napoleonic law take the place of common law in louisiana? I heard something about that once, regarding common law differences in louisiana regarding divorce.

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Last edited December 11, 2001 2:53 am by Alan D (diff)
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